Name: 
 

BIS 10V / NEM 10V 2012 Final Exam



Instructions:

Put your name and student ID number on both the test and the scantron.

On your scantron, bubble in your student ID number. Bubble in the test version.

Only use pencil (spare ones up front). Erase stray  marks fully. No stray marks in the row of black lines.

On your scantron, identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

If you think there is an error on the test, make a note on your test (not the scantron) and tell the instructor on the way out.

Double check your scantron for "double bubbles" or missing answers. There is no penalty for guessing.
 

 1. 

The sister chromatids become separated during ____ of meiosis.
a.
metaphase I
b.
anaphase I
c.
telophase I
d.
anaphase II
e.
prophase II
 

 2. 

When glucose is used as the energy source, the largest amount of ATP is produced in
a.
glycolysis.
b.
acetyl CoA formation.
c.
the Krebs cycle.
d.
substrate-level phosphorylation.
e.
electron transport phosphorylation.
 

 3. 

In a chromosome, a _____ is a constricted region with attachment sites for microtubules.
a.
chromatid
b.
cell plate
c.
centromere
d.
cleavage
 

 4. 

An evolutionary tree diagram with horizontal branches that abruptly become vertical is consistent with the _____ .
a.
gradual model of speciation
b.
punctuation model of speciation
c.
idea of small changes in form over long spans of time
d.
both a and c
 

 5. 

Birds use feathers in _____ .
a.
flight
b.
heat conservation
c.
social functions
d.
all of the above
 

 6. 

At night, most plants conserve _____, and _____ accumulates.
a.
carbon dioxide; oxygen
b.
water; oxygen
c.
oxygen; water
d.
water; carbon dioxide
 

 7. 

The only chordate feature still present in the human adult is
a.
pharyngeal gill slits.
b.
nerve cord.
c.
notochord.
d.
tail.
e.
all of these
 

 8. 

Movement of a molecule against a concentration gradient is
a.
simple diffusion.
b.
facilitated diffusion.
c.
osmosis.
d.
active transport.
e.
passive transport.
 

 9. 

The male part of a flower is the
a.
carpel.
b.
stamen.
c.
petal.
d.
sepal.
e.
pistil.
 

 10. 

Gamete formation is
a.
the result of the process of mitosis.
b.
the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
c.
the formation of sex cells.
d.
the fusion of gametes.
e.
a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms.
 

 11. 

Negative feedback
a.
always turns a process off.
b.
reduces an error signal in a regulatory system.
c.
is not as common as positive feedback in regulatory systems of the body.
d.
is a feature of ectotherms but not of endotherms.
 

 12. 

Which terms accurately describe the archaebacteria?
a.
extinct, aerobic
b.
extinct, anaerobic
c.
present, aerobic
d.
present, anaerobic
 

 13. 

Which have a tough cuticle, a false coelom, and a complete digestive system and are facultative anaerobes?
a.
roundworms
b.
cnidarians
c.
flatworms
d.
echinoderms
e.
porifera
 

 14. 

What is the path by which air moves into the respiratory system.
a.
Nasal passage, trachea, larynx, pharynx, bronchus, bronchiole, alveolus
b.
Nasal passage,pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchiole, bronchus, alveolus
c.
Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchus, bronciole, alveolus
d.
Nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, bronchus, trachea, bronchiole, alveolus
 

 15. 

Cell differentiation _____ .
a.
occurs in all complex multicelled organisms
b.
requires different genes in different cells
c.
involves selective gene expression
d.
both a and c
e.
all of the above
 

 16. 

A lichen is a composite organism made up of
a.
two different fungi.
b.
a fungus and an alga.
c.
a fungus and a gymnosperm.
d.
a fungus and a bryophyte.
 

 17. 

The main source of energy for humans is
a.
fats.
b.
carbohydrates.
c.
proteins.
d.
nucleotides.
e.
steroids.
 

 18. 

Directional selection _____ .
a.
eliminates uncommon forms of alleles
b.
shifts allele frequencies in a steady, consistent direction
c.
favors intermediate forms of a trait
d.
works against adaptive traits
 

 19. 

In most true fungi the individual cellular filaments of the body are called
a.
mycelia.
b.
hyphae.
c.
mycorrhizae.
d.
asci.
e.
gills.
 

 20. 

The laboratory technique used to separate the DNA fragments produced by automated DNA sequencing is
a.
the polymerase chain reaction.
b.
gel electrophoresis.
c.
ultracentrifugation.
d.
electron microscopy.
e.
fluorescence microscopy.
 

 21. 

When a photosystem absorbs light, _____ .
a.
sugar phosphates are produced
b.
electrons are transferred to ATP
c.
RuBP accepts electrons
d.
light-dependent reactions begin
 

 22. 

During metabolism, ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is an energy source for the following processes:
a.
reproduction and growth
b.
reproduction and maintenance
c.
growth
d.
growth and maintenance
e.
reproduction, growth, and maintenance
 

 23. 

The sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome is
a.
XXX.
b.
XO.
c.
XXY.
d.
XYY.
e.
none of these
 

 24. 

In the biological species concept of Ernst Mayer, what aspect of a population is critical to determining a species?
a.
physical appearance
b.
similar behavior patterns
c.
interbreeding capabilities
d.
polyploidy
e.
similar genotypes
 

 25. 

In early wood, cells have _____ diameters, _____ walls.
a.
small; thick
b.
small; thin
c.
large; thick
d.
large; thin
 

 26. 

Whisk ferns, lycophytes, horsetails, and ferns are classified as _____ plants.
a.
multicelled aquatic
b.
nonvascular seed
c.
seedless vascular
d.
seed-bearing vascular
 

 27. 

The main photosynthetic area of a leaf is composed of
a.
mesophyll.
b.
cortex.
c.
xylem.
d.
epidermis.
e.
none of these
 

 28. 

Which DOES NOT  apply to gymnosperms and angiosperms?
a.
vascular tissues
b.
diploid dominance
c.
single spore type
d.
all of the above
 

 29. 

Protozoans are classified on the basis of their
a.
photosynthetic nature.
b.
life cycle.
c.
unique structures.
d.
type of motility.
e.
feeding habitats.
 

 30. 

In which organelle are steroid hormones synthesized?
a.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum
b.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c.
The mitochondrion
d.
The nucleus
e.
The ribosome
 

 31. 

Transcription
a.
occurs on the surface of the ribosome.
b.
is the final process in the assembly of a protein.
c.
occurs during the synthesis of any type of RNA from a DNA template.
d.
is catalyzed by DNA polymerase.
e.
all of these
 

 32. 

A water-vascular system is characteristic of the
a.
arthropods.
b.
annelids.
c.
chordates.
d.
mollusks.
e.
echinoderms.
 

 33. 

Generally the only amphibian groups that entirely escaped dependency on free-standing water are ____ .
a.
salamanders
b.
toads
c.
caecilians
d.
all require it
 

 34. 

The signaling chemicals produced by one group of cells that affect distant target cells are called
a.
secretions.
b.
hormones.
c.
steroids.
d.
polymers.
e.
enzymes.
 

 35. 

The nutrition of some plants depends on a root-bacterium association known as a _____ .
a.
root nodule
b.
mycorrhiza
c.
root hair
d.
root hypha
 

 36. 

The pathway in a reflex arc is
a.
Sensory neuron, interneuron, brain, motor neuron, muscle
b.
Sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, muscle
c.
Sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, muscle
d.
Sensory neuron, interneuron, muscle, motor neuron
 

 37. 

Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
Monocots and dicots are two classes of angiosperms.
b.
Bryophytes are nonvascular plants.
c.
Lycophytes and angiosperms are both vascular plants.
d.
Gymnosperms are the simplest vascular plants.
 

 38. 

Birds differ from earlier vertebrates by
a.
their lack of scales.
b.
the land egg.
c.
the ability to maintain a constant body temperature.
d.
the ability to fertilize eggs internally.
e.
their possession of a dorsal nerve cord.
 

 39. 

Euglenoids and chrysophytes are mostly _____ .
a.
photoautotrophs
b.
chemoautotrophs
c.
heterotrophs
d.
omnivorous
 

 40. 

In simple diffusion
a.
the rate of movement of molecules is controlled by temperature and pressure.
b.
the movement of individual molecules is random.
c.
the movement of molecules of one substance is independent of the movement of any other substance.
d.
the net movement is away from the region of highest concentration.
e.
all of these
 

 41. 

Rhizomes in the whisk ferns serve the same function as __________ in more advanced land plants.
a.
leaves
b.
stems
c.
roots
d.
seeds
e.
flowers
 

 42. 

In daytime, most plants lose _____ and take up _____.
a.
water; carbon dioxide
b.
water; oxygen
c.
oxygen; water
d.
carbon dioxide; water
 

 43. 

Although it its too simple an explanation, the concept of a key fitting into a lock is descriptive of the
a.
inhibition of enzymes by small molecules.
b.
fit of coenzymes to enzymes.
c.
matching of enzyme with substrate.
d.
regeneration of ATP from ADP.
e.
stepwise cascade of electrons in the oxidation-reduction reactions.
 

 44. 

Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?
a.
B cell
b.
T cell
c.
Natural killer cell
d.
Macrophage
 

 45. 

The Krebs cycle takes place in the
a.
ribosomes.
b.
cytoplasm.
c.
nucleus.
d.
mitochondria.
e.
chloroplasts.
 

 46. 

When molecules are broken apart in respiration
a.
the heat produced is used to drive biological reactions.
b.
the oxygen in the compounds that are broken apart is used as an energy source.
c.
the energy released in respiration is channeled into molecules of ATP.
d.
ATP is converted into ADP.
e.
ADP is released as a waste product.
 

 47. 

Where in a plant cell is chlorophyll found?
a.
on the outer chloroplast membrane
b.
inside the mitochondria
c.
in the stroma
d.
in the thylakoids
e.
none of these
 

 48. 

During a _____ life cycle, amoeboid cells aggregate and form a migrating mass.
a.
slime mold
b.
water mold
c.
chytrid
d.
sporozoan
 

 49. 

In an evolutionary tree diagram, a branch point represents a _____, and a branch that ends represents _____ .
a.
single species; incomplete data on lineage
b.
single species; extinction
c.
time of divergence; extinction
d.
time of divergence; speciation complete
 

 50. 

_____ are the most evolutionarily successful animals.
a.
arthropods
b.
annelids
c.
sponges
d.
snails and clams
e.
sea stars
 

 51. 

Pairing of homologues and crossing over occur during
a.
anaphase I.
b.
metaphase II.
c.
prophase I.
d.
prophase II.
e.
telophase II.
 

 52. 

The sharp reduction of the gene pool and the numbers of a population through a severe epidemic is an example of
a.
natural selection.
b.
genetic isolation.
c.
the bottleneck effect.
d.
the founder principle.
e.
all of these
 

 53. 

The joining of carbon dioxide to RuBP occurs in the
a.
thylakoids.
b.
stroma.
c.
mitochondria.
d.
cytoplasm.
e.
P700.
 

 54. 

The light-independent reactions proceed in the _____ .
a.
cytoplasm
b.
plasma membrane
c.
stroma
 

 55. 

The acquisition of a key evolutionary innovation by a species gives evidence for the concept of
a.
uniformitarianism.
b.
gradualism.
c.
convergence.
d.
adaptive radiation.
e.
special creation.
 

 56. 

Through meiosis
a.
alternate forms of genes are shuffled.
b.
parental DNA is divided and distributed to forming gametes.
c.
the diploid chromosome number is reduced to haploid.
d.
offspring are provided with new gene combinations.
e.
all of these
 

 57. 

The human axial skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT
a.
skull.
b.
ribs.
c.
pectoral girdle.
d.
sternum.
e.
vertebral column.
 

 58. 

In spongy bone tissue the spaces are filled with
a.
air.
b.
blood.
c.
cartilage.
d.
marrow.
e.
lymph.
 

 59. 

How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
36
e.
38
 

 60. 

The first vertebrates included ____ .
a.
bony fishes
b.
jawless fishes
c.
lobe-finned fishes
d.
both a and b
 

 61. 

Interneurons
a.
connect a motor neuron and sensory neuron.
b.
determine whether a particular motor neuron is excited or inhibited.
c.
become either sensory or motor neurons during development.
d.
are described in both a and b.
e.
are described by none of the above.
 

 62. 

Mast cells and _____ release histamine.
a.
neutrophils
b.
basophils
c.
eosinophils
d.
dendritic cells
 

 63. 

Which of the following are produced within the anthers?
a.
ovules
b.
stamens
c.
microspores
d.
female gametophytes
e.
none of these
 

 64. 

At the end of the ovarian cycle, if a woman is not pregnant, the corpus luteum
a.
disintegrates.
b.
migrates to the oviducts to await the next menstrual cycle.
c.
attaches to the uterine lining.
d.
grows into a new follicle.
 

 65. 

Jellyfishes, sea anemones, and their relatives have _____  symmetry, and their cells form _____ .
a.
radial; mesoderm
b.
bilateral; tissues
c.
radial; tissues
d.
bilateral; mesoderm
 

 66. 

The Hardy-Weinberg formula
a.
is useful in determining the extent to which a sexually reproducing population is evolving.
b.
is used to predict when genetic drift will occur in a sexually reproducing population.
c.
is useful in determining the extent to which polyploidy is occurring in specific plant populations.
d.
is used to predict when specific groups of organisms will become extinct.
e.
all of these
 

 67. 

All fungi are
a.
unicellular.
b.
multicellular.
c.
autotrophic.
d.
heterotrophic.
 

 68. 

The pressure in the pleural cavities is always lower than atmospheric pressure.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 69. 

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a.
Auxins and gibberellins promote stem elongation.
b.
Cytokinins promote cell division but retard leaf aging.
c.
Abscisic acid promotes water loss and dormancy.
d.
Ethylene promotes fruit ripening and abscission.
 

 70. 

During enzyme-catalyzed reactions, substrate is a synonym for
a.
end products.
b.
byproducts.
c.
enzymes.
d.
reactants.
e.
none of these
 

 71. 

The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
 

 72. 

The vertebrate jaw first appeared in which organism?
a.
fishes
b.
amphibians
c.
reptiles
d.
birds
e.
mammals
 

 73. 

The resting potential of a neuron is due mostly to
a.
saltatory conduction.
b.
open Na+ channels.
c.
open K+ channels.
d.
differences in Ca2+ ion concentration across the membrane.
 

 74. 

In the cardiac cycle, when do the atrioventricular valves close?
a.
During systole
b.
During diastole
 

 75. 

Major trends in the evolution of animals include
a.
cephalization, the development of a definite head region.
b.
the development of types of symmetry.
c.
variation in coelomic cavities.
d.
the development of segments.
e.
all of these
 

 76. 

During the systole phase of the cardiac cycle, high blood pressure in the ventricles forces the
a.
aortic valve to open.
b.
atria to contract.
c.
atrioventricular valves to open.
d.
pulmonary valve to close.
 

 77. 

Allosteric inhibition is generally a result of
a.
excess substrates.
b.
binding regulatory molecules at another site.
c.
a change in the temperature of the system.
d.
a lack of coenzymes.
e.
pH inhibition.
 

 78. 

Saprobes are
a.
cytoplasmic organelles.
b.
metabolic by-products.
c.
organisms that feed on dead material.
d.
parasites of plants.
e.
an evolutionary dead end.
 

 79. 

The correct operational sequence of the three processes listed below is:
I.glycolysis
II.ETP
III.Krebs
a.
I II III
b.
II I III
c.
III I II
d.
II III I
e.
I III II
 

 80. 

Two individuals are members of the same species if they
a.
possess the same number of chromosomes.
b.
breed at the same time.
c.
are phenotypically indistinguishable.
d.
can mate and produce fertile offspring.
 

 81. 

At the neuromuscular junction, which ion triggers the release of neurotransmitter by causing synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane?
a.
Na+
b.
K+
c.
Mg2+
d.
Ca2+
e.
Cl-
 

 82. 

Organisms that derive their chemical energy either from the process of chemosynthesis or photosynthesis are classified as
a.
autotrophs.
b.
parasites.
c.
heterotrophs.
d.
saprophytes.
e.
mutualists.
 

 83. 

ATP is
a.
the energy currency of a cell.
b.
produced by the destruction of ADP.
c.
expended in the process of photosynthesis.
d.
produced during the phosphorylation of any organic compound.
e.
none of these
 

 84. 

Allopatric speciation requires
a.
gradual evolutionary changes.
b.
geographic isolation.
c.
polyploidy.
d.
adaptive radiation.
 

 85. 

Sodium ions cross a membrane through transport proteins that receive an energy boost. This is an example of _____ .
a.
passive transport
b.
active transport
c.
facilitated diffusion
d.
a and c
 

 86. 

The primary reason for hybrid sterility is
a.
the inability of the hybrid to attract a mate.
b.
the difficulty in finding a suitable habitat in which to survive.
c.
that the hybrids are usually weak and have difficulty surviving to reproductive maturity.
d.
the difficulty in the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
e.
the inability of the hybrid to develop an appropriate courtship pattern.
 

 87. 

Which liberates the most energy in the form of ATP?
a.
aerobic respiration
b.
anaerobic respiration
c.
alcoholic fermentation
d.
lactate fermentation
e.
All liberate the same amount, but through different means.
 

 88. 

In the life cycle of primitive plants, which of the following predominates?
a.
haploid stage
b.
diploid stage
c.
large sporophyte body
d.
both diploid stage and large sporophyte body
e.
both haploid stage and large sporophyte body
 

 89. 

Each cell is able to maintain a constant internal environment. This is called
a.
metabolism.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
physiology.
d.
adaptation.
e.
evolution.
 

 90. 

Single-celled photosynthetic protistans, which include most euglenoids, chrysophytes, and dinoflagellates, are memebers of ______, the "pastures" of most aquatic habitats.
a.
zooplankton
b.
red algae
c.
brown algae
d.
phytoplankton
 



 
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