Name: 
 

BIS 10V / NEM 10V 2012 Midterm


Instructions:

Put your name and student ID number on both the test and the scantron.

On your scantron, bubble in your student ID number. Bubble in the test version.

Only use pencil (spare ones up front). Erase stray  marks fully. No stray marks in the row of black lines.

On your scantron, identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

If you think there is an error on the test, make a note on your test (not the scantron) and tell the instructor on the way out.

Double check your scantron for "double bubbles" or missing answers. There is no penalty for guessing.
 

 1. 
Genes are
a.
located on chromosomes.
b.
inherited in the same way as chromosomes.
c.
arranged in linear sequence on chromosomes.
d.
assorted independently during meiosis.
e.
all of these
 

 2. 
Plasma membranes are characterized by the presence of
a.
triglycerides.
b.
phospholipids.
c.
unsaturated fats.
d.
steroid hormones.
e.
fatty acids.
 

 3. 
All steroids have
a.
the same number of double bonds.
b.
the same position of double bonds.
c.
four rings of carbon to which are attached other atoms.
d.
the same functional groups.
e.
the same number and position of double bonds.
 

 4. 
Mitosis and cytoplasmic division function in _____ .
a.
asexual reproduction of single-celled eukaryotes
b.
growth, tissue repair, and sometimes asexual reproduction in many multicelled eukaryotes
c.
gamete formation in prokaryotes
d.
both a and b
 

 5. 
The inner membranes of mitochondria are called
a.
filaments.
b.
cilia.
c.
chromatin.
d.
cristae.
e.
centrioles.
 

 6. 
Each carbon atom can share pairs of electrons with as many as _____ other atoms.
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
 

 7. 
The Creosote Bush is typical of which biome
a.
Rain Forest
b.
Desert
c.
Grassland
d.
Tundra
e.
Shrubland
 

 8. 
An operator most typically governs _____ .
a.
bacterial genes
b.
a eukaryotic gene
c.
genes of all types
d.
DNA replication
 

 9. 
Under favorable conditions, during which phase of meiosis will the chromosomes appear as packets of four chromatids?
a.
anaphase I
b.
telophase II
c.
anaphase II
d.
prophase I
e.
metaphase II
 

 10. 
Replication of DNA
a.
produces RNA molecules.
b.
produces only new DNA.
c.
produces two molecules, each of which is half-new and half-old DNA joined lengthwise to each other.
d.
generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide.
e.
is too complex to characterize.
 

 11. 
Multiple effects of a single gene is known as
a.
expressivity.
b.
penetrance.
c.
codominance.
d.
pleiotropy.
e.
multiple alleles.
 

 12. 
Which is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element?
a.
atom
b.
compound
c.
ion
d.
molecule
e.
mixture
 

 13. 
The probability of a crossover occurring between two genes on the same chromosome is _____ .
a.
unrelated to the distance between them
b.
increased if they are closer together on the chromosome
c.
increased if they are farther apart on the chromosome
 

 14. 
A duplicated chromosome has _____ chromatid(s).
a.
one
b.
two
c.
three
d.
four
 

 15. 
Apoptosis is _____ .
a.
cell division after severe tissue damage
b.
programmed cell death by suicide
c.
a popping sound in mutated toes
 

 16. 
A base sequence signalilng the start of a gene is a(n) _____.
a.
promotor
b.
operator
c.
enhancer
d.
activator protein
 

 17. 
Which reaction results in the breakdown of a chemical into simpler substances?
a.
synthesis
b.
hydrolysis
c.
condensation
d.
polymerization
e.
both hydrolysis and condensation
 

 18. 
Sperm are formed directly from the maturation of
a.
sperm mother cells.
b.
spermatids.
c.
spermatagonial cells.
d.
primary spermatocytes.
e.
secondary spermatocytes.
 

 19. 
The significance of the experiments in which 32P and 35S were used is that
a.
the semiconservative nature of DNA replication was finally demonstrated.
b.
it demonstrated that harmless bacterial cells had become permanently transformed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system.
c.
it established that pure DNA extracted from disease-causing bacteria transformed harmless strains into killer strains.
d.
it demonstrated that radioactively labeled bacteriophages transfer their DNA but not their protein coats to their host bacteria.
 

 20. 
The negative subatomic particle is the
a.
neutron.
b.
proton.
c.
electron.
d.
neutron and proton.
e.
proton and electron.
 

 21. 
From outside to inside, an embryo at the end of gastrulation has the following three embryonic tissue layers:
a.
Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
b.
Ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm
c.
Mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm
d.
Endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
e.
Endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm
 

 22. 
Meiosis typically results in the production of
a.
2 diploid cells.
b.
4 diploid cells.
c.
4 haploid cells.
d.
2 haploid cells.
e.
1 triploid cell.
 

 23. 
Four of the five answers listed below are familliar organelles in the cytoplasm. Select the exception.
a.
nucleolus
b.
mitochondria
c.
ribosome
d.
Golgi apparatus
e.
chloroplast
 

 24. 
Orchids are characteristic of which biome
a.
Desert
b.
Coniferous Forest
c.
Shrubland
d.
Tundra
e.
Rainforest
 

 25. 
Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what kind of chromatids?
a.
mother
b.
daughter
c.
sister
d.
programmed
e.
either mother or daughter but not sister nor programmed
 

 26. 
Genetic recombination as a result of crossing over occurs more readily in genes that are located
a.
on the sex chromosomes.
b.
on the autosomes.
c.
close together on the same chromosome.
d.
far apart on the same chromosome.
e.
on different chromosomes.
 

 27. 
Nondisjuction can be caused by _____ .
a.
crossing over in mitosis
b.
segregation in meiosis
c.
failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis
d.
multiple independent assortments
 

 28. 
The nuclear membrane reforms during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
 

 29. 
Cells with two sets of genetic information are described by the term
a.
polyploid.
b.
diploid.
c.
triploid.
d.
haploid.
e.
tetraploid.
 

 30. 
Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells _____ .
a.
lack a plasma membrane
b.
have RNA, not DNA
c.
do not have a nucleus
d.
all of the above
 

 31. 
Which does NOT occur in prophase I of meiosis?
a.
cytokinesis
b.
formation of groups of four chromatids
c.
homologue pairing
d.
crossing over
e.
condensation of chromatin
 

 32. 
The chromosomes and genes are actually replicated during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
 

 33. 
Duplicated chromosomes move away from their homologue and end up at the opposite spindle pole during _____ .
a.
prophase I
b.
prophase II
c.
anaphase I
d.
anaphase II
 

 34. 
_____ is a simple sugar (monosaccharide).
a.
Glucose
b.
Sucrose
c.
Ribose
d.
Chitin
e.
both a and c
 

 35. 
An organelle found in the nucleus is a
a.
plastid.
b.
vacuole.
c.
microvillus.
d.
nucleolus.
e.
basal body.
 

 36. 
X chromosome inactivation is an example of _____ .
a.
a chromosome abnormality
b.
dosage compensation
c.
dysfunctional calico cats
d.
dysfunctional women
 

 37. 
Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because
a.
it produces new arrays of alleles on chromosomes.
b.
homologous chromosomes must be separated into different daughter cells.
c.
the number of chromosomes allotted to each daughter cell must be halved.
d.
homologous chromatids must be separated into different daughter cells.
e.
all of these
 

 38. 
The expression of a given gene depends on the _____.
a.
type of cell and its functions
b.
chemical conditions
c.
environmental signals
d.
all of the above
 

 39. 
Chromosomes other than those involved in sex determination are known as
a.
nucleosomes.
b.
heterosomes.
c.
alleles.
d.
autosomes.
e.
liposomes.
 

 40. 
If the electronegativity of an atom is relatively high, when this atom forms bonds with other atoms with lower electronegativities, what does it tend to do?
a.
It pulls electrons closer to itself, away from the other atom.
b.
It shares electrons equally.
c.
It donates electrons to the other atom.
 

 41. 
The location of a gene on a chromosome is its
a.
centromere.
b.
locus.
c.
autosome.
d.
allele.
e.
none of these
 

 42. 
If R is dominant to r, the offspring of the cross of RR with rr will
a.
be homozygous.
b.
display the same phenotype as the RR parent.
c.
display the same phenotype as the rr parent.
d.
have the same genotype as the RR parent.
e.
have the same genotype as the rr parent.
 

 43. 
These are the primary structures for the packaging of cellular secretions for export from the cell.
a.
Golgi bodies
b.
ribosomes
c.
mitochondria
d.
lysosomes
e.
endoplasmic reticula
 

 44. 
Eukaryotic genes guide _____ .
a.
fast short-term activities
b.
overall growth
c.
development
d.
all of the above
 

 45. 
DNA contains many different genes that are transcribed into different _____ .
a.
proteins
b.
mRNAs only
c.
mRNAs, tRNAs, and rRNAs
d.
all are correct
 

 46. 
In incomplete dominance
a.
one allele is not dominant to another allele.
b.
the genotype can be determined by the phenotype.
c.
the heterozygote is somewhat intermediate to the two homozygotes.
d.
the intermediate phenotype may be the result of enzyme insufficiency.
e.
all of these
 

 47. 
Saguaro Cactus would most likely be found in which biome
a.
Desert
b.
Shrubland
c.
Grassland
d.
Coniferous Forest
e.
Tundra
 

 48. 
Fossils found in the lowest geological strata are generally the most
a.
advanced.
b.
complex.
c.
primitive.
d.
widespread.
e.
specialized.
 

 49. 
This organelle's appearance has been likened to a stack of flattened sacs.
a.
Golgi body
b.
ribosome
c.
mitochondria
d.
lysosome
e.
vesicle
 

 50. 
Sexual reproduction
a.
leads to uniform characteristics in a population.
b.
results in new combinations of genetic traits.
c.
produces genetic clones.
d.
requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
e.
produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
 



 
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