Name: 
 

BIS10V / NEM10V 2012 Midterm


Instructions:

Put your name and student ID number on both the test and the scantron.

On your scantron, bubble in your student ID number. Bubble in the test version.

Only use pencil (spare ones up front). Erase stray  marks fully. No stray marks in the row of black lines.

On your scantron, identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

If you think there is an error on the test, make a note on your test (not the scantron) and tell the instructor on the way out.

Double check your scantron for "double bubbles" or missing answers. There is no penalty for guessing.
 

 1. 
Genes are
a.
located on chromosomes.
b.
inherited in the same way as chromosomes.
c.
arranged in linear sequence on chromosomes.
d.
assorted independently during meiosis.
e.
all of these
 

 2. 
Sperm are formed directly from the maturation of
a.
sperm mother cells.
b.
spermatids.
c.
spermatagonial cells.
d.
primary spermatocytes.
e.
secondary spermatocytes.
 

 3. 
From X-ray diffraction data, which of the following was determined about DNA?
a.
The molecule had uniform diameter.
b.
The molecule was long and narrow.
c.
Part of the molecule repeated itself often.
d.
The shape of the molecule could be spiral.
e.
all of these
 

 4. 
The laboratory technique used to separate the DNA fragments produced by automated DNA sequencing is
a.
the polymerase chain reaction.
b.
gel electrophoresis.
c.
ultracentrifugation.
d.
electron microscopy.
e.
fluorescence microscopy.
 

 5. 
Which of the following are made of two subunits and are composed of RNA and protein?
a.
Golgi
b.
mitochondria
c.
chloroplasts
d.
ribosomes
e.
endoplasmic reticula
 

 6. 
Each of the cells formed during telophase I is
a.
diploid.
b.
tetraploid.
c.
in synapsis.
d.
ready to be fertilized.
e.
haploid.
 

 7. 
Before the onset of  meiosis, all chromosomes are _____ .
a.
condensed
b.
released from protein
c.
duplicated
d.
both b and c
 

 8. 
The chromosomes are moving to opposite poles during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
 

 9. 
A fully functional molecule of hemoglobin is a good example of _____ protein structure.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
tertiary
d.
quaternary
e.
none of these
 

 10. 
During meiosis II
a.
cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells.
b.
sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other.
c.
homologous chromosomes pair up.
d.
homologous chromosomes separate.
e.
sister chromatids exchange parts.
 

 11. 
How do hydrophobic molecules react with water?
a.
attracted to
b.
absorbed by
c.
repelled by
d.
mixed with
e.
polarized by
 

 12. 
One portion of the cell theory states that
a.
all cells have a nucleus.
b.
all cells divide by meiosis.
c.
all living organisms are made up of cells.
d.
cells arise through spontaneous generation.
e.
growth is solely the result of cell division.
 

 13. 
Organelles _____ .
a.
are membrane-bound compartments
b.
are typical of eukaryotic cells, not prokaryotic cells
c.
separate chemical reactions in time and space
d.
all of the above are features of the organelles
 

 14. 
From outside to inside, an embryo at the end of gastrulation has the following three embryonic tissue layers:
a.
Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
b.
Ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm
c.
Mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm
d.
Endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
e.
Endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm
 

 15. 
Which includes the other four?
a.
atoms
b.
molecules
c.
electrons
d.
elements
e.
protons
 

 16. 
Darwin saw that populations of Galapagos finches _____ .
a.
show variation in traits
b.
resemble birds in South America
c.
are adapted to different island habitats
d.
all of the above
 

 17. 
The use of RFLPs for "genetic fingerprinting" is based on
a.
the type of gel used in electrophoresis.
b.
identical alleles at loci.
c.
differences of locations where enzymes make their cuts.
d.
differences between blood and semen DNA.
e.
bonding of DNA to RNA.
 

 18. 
Multiple effects of a single gene is known as
a.
expressivity.
b.
penetrance.
c.
codominance.
d.
pleiotropy.
e.
multiple alleles.
 

 19. 
_____ are to proteins as _____ are to nucleic acids.
a.
Sugars; lipids
b.
Sugars; proteins
c.
Amino acids; hydrogen bonds
d.
Amino acids; nucleotides
 

 20. 
Which type of cytoskeletal protein is responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
a.
Intermediate filaments
b.
Microfilaments
c.
Microtubules
 

 21. 
Which of the following adult tissues or organs arises from the mesoderm?
a.
Sense organs
b.
Nervous system
c.
Circulatory system
d.
Respiratory tract
e.
Digestive tract
 

 22. 
Generally, a pair of homologous chromosomes _____ .
a.
carry the same genes
b.
are the same length, shape
c.
interact at meiosis
d.
all of the above
 

 23. 
If two genes are almost always found in the same gamete, they are
a.
located close together on the same chromosome.
b.
located on nonhomologous chromosomes.
c.
located far apart on the same chromosome.
d.
found on the sex chromosome.
 

 24. 
The neutral subatomic particle is the
a.
neutron.
b.
proton.
c.
electron.
d.
neutron and proton.
e.
none of these
 

 25. 
Nucleotides contain what kind of sugars?
a.
three-carbon
b.
four-carbon
c.
five-carbon
d.
six-carbon
e.
seven-carbon
 

 26. 
The expression of a given gene depends on the _____.
a.
type of cell and its functions
b.
chemical conditions
c.
environmental signals
d.
all of the above
 

 27. 
Which is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element?
a.
atom
b.
compound
c.
ion
d.
molecule
e.
mixture
 

 28. 
Hydrophobic reactions of phospholipids may produce clusters of their fatty acid tails, which form
a.
a lipid bilayer.
b.
hydrolysis of the fatty acids.
c.
a protein membrane.
d.
a cytoskeleton.
e.
a nonpolar membrane.
 

 29. 
Mendel's principle of independent assortment states that
a.
one allele is always dominant to another.
b.
hereditary units from the male and female parents are blended in the offspring.
c.
the two hereditary units that influence a certain trait segregate during gamete formation.
d.
each hereditary unit is inherited separately from other hereditary units.
e.
all of these
 

 30. 
Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because
a.
it produces new arrays of alleles on chromosomes.
b.
homologous chromosomes must be separated into different daughter cells.
c.
the number of chromosomes allotted to each daughter cell must be halved.
d.
homologous chromatids must be separated into different daughter cells.
e.
all of these
 

 31. 
An RNA molecule is _____.
a.
a double helix
b.
usually single-stranded
c.
always double-stranded
d.
usually double-stranded
 

 32. 
Assuming complete dominance, the F2 generation following the cross Aa x Aa will show a phenotypic ratio of _____ .
a.
3:1
b.
9:1
c.
1:2:1
d.
9:3:3:1
 

 33. 
There are how many different kinds of RNA codons?
a.
3
b.
12
c.
28
d.
64
e.
120
 

 34. 
Runoff occurs when
a.
the soil cannot hold anymore water.
b.
water enters the ground.
c.
waer vapor cools to a liquid form.
d.
None of the above.
 

 35. 
Which of the following is the region that is the binding site for RNA polymerase?
a.
heterogeneous nuclear DNA
b.
repressor gene
c.
promoter sequence
d.
operator sequence
e.
all of these
 

 36. 
A mutation is a change in
a.
homeostasis.
b.
the developmental pattern in an organism.
c.
metabolism.
d.
hereditary instructions.
e.
the life cycle of an organism.
 

 37. 
This organelle's appearance has been likened to a stack of flattened sacs.
a.
Golgi body
b.
ribosome
c.
mitochondria
d.
lysosome
e.
vesicle
 

 38. 
Hormones may ______ gene transcription in target cells.
a.
promote
b.
inhibit
c.
participate in
d.
both a and b
 

 39. 
Fossils found in the lowest geological strata are generally the most
a.
advanced.
b.
complex.
c.
primitive.
d.
widespread.
e.
specialized.
 

 40. 
The positive control of the lactose operon in bacteria is
a.
activated by a repressor protein.
b.
independent of glucose concentrations.
c.
activated by a protein known as CAP.
d.
regulated by RNA polymerase.
e.
all of these
 

 41. 
A recognized set ot symptoms that characterize a specific disorder is a _____ .
a.
syndrome
b.
disease
c.
pedigree
 

 42. 
The sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome is
a.
XXX.
b.
XO.
c.
XXY.
d.
XYY.
e.
none of these
 

 43. 
Genes at one locus that affect the expression of genes at a different locus are said to be
a.
epistatic.
b.
linked.
c.
codominant.
d.
penetrant.
e.
alleles.
 

 44. 
Hybrid organisms produced from a cross between two pure-breeding organisms belong to which generation?
a.
P1
b.
H1
c.
A1
d.
F1
e.
F2
 

 45. 
A heterozygote has a _____ for the trait being studied.
a.
pair of identical alleles
b.
pair of nonidentical alleles
c.
haploid condition, in genetic terms
d.
a and c
 

 46. 
The three most common atoms in your body are
a.
hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon.
b.
carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
c.
carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.
d.
nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygen.
e.
carbon, oxygen, and sulfur.
 

 47. 
When water _________ it is called snow and/or rain.
a.
condenses
b.
precipitates
c.
pontificates
d.
subjugates
 

 48. 
The secondary structure of proteins can be
a.
helical.
b.
sheetlike.
c.
globular.
d.
the sequence of amino acids.
e.
both helical and sheetlike.
 

 49. 
The chromosomal DNA is duplicate in _____ of meiosis.
a.
prophase I
b.
metaphase I
c.
interphase
d.
prophase II
e.
anaphase II
 

 50. 
Warm, humid air will rise by what process?
a.
Precipitation
b.
Infiltration
c.
Subduction
d.
Convection
 



 
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