Name: 
 

BIS10V / NEM10V - Final Exam - Spring 2011


Instructions:

Put your name and student ID number on both the test and the scantron.

On your scantron, bubble in your student ID number. Bubble in the test version.

Only use pencil (spare ones up front). Erase stray  marks fully. No stray marks in the row of black lines.

On your scantron, identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

If you think there is an error on the test, make a note on your test (not the scantron) and tell the instructor on the way out.

Double check your scantron for "double bubbles" or missing answers. There is no penalty for guessing.
 

 1. 
Which type of cytoskeletal protein is responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
a.
Intermediate filaments
b.
Microfilaments
c.
Microtubules
 

 2. 
Directional selection occurs when
a.
the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b.
humans determine which organisms will survive.
c.
the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d.
the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e.
the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than do those on the other extreme.
 

 3. 
Water transport from roots to leaves is explained by _____ .
a.
the pressure flow theory
b.
differences in source and sink solute concentrations
c.
the pumping force of xylem vessels
d.
the cohesion-tension theory
 

 4. 
How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
36
e.
38
 

 5. 
The sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome is
a.
XXX.
b.
XO.
c.
XXY.
d.
XYY.
e.
none of these
 

 6. 
Whisk ferns, lycophytes, horsetails, and ferns are classified as _____ plants.
a.
multicelled aquatic
b.
nonvascular seed
c.
seedless vascular
d.
seed-bearing vascular
 

 7. 
The carbon source for organisms that derive their energy from photosynthesis is
a.
carbon monoxide.
b.
carbon dioxide.
c.
hydrocarbons.
d.
methane.
e.
glucose.
 

 8. 
Two individuals are members of the same species if they
a.
possess the same number of chromosomes.
b.
breed at the same time.
c.
are phenotypically indistinguishable.
d.
can mate and produce fertile offspring.
 

 9. 
The Krebs cycle takes place in the
a.
ribosomes.
b.
cytoplasm.
c.
nucleus.
d.
mitochondria.
e.
chloroplasts.
 

 10. 
The plant hormone that promotes fruit ripening is
a.
auxin.
b.
gibberellin.
c.
cytokinin.
d.
florigen.
e.
ethylene.
 

 11. 
Alleles are _____ .
a.
different molecular forms of a gene
b.
different phenotypes
c.
self-fertilizing, true-breeding homozygotes
 

 12. 
Which of the following is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton?
a.
clavicle
b.
scapula
c.
fibula
d.
ribs
e.
patella
 

 13. 
Hemophilia
a.
is rare in the human population.
b.
is more common among men.
c.
was common in English royalty.
d.
is an X-linked recessive trait.
e.
all of these
 

 14. 
In spongy bone tissue the spaces are filled with
a.
air.
b.
blood.
c.
cartilage.
d.
marrow.
e.
lymph.
 

 15. 
In alcoholic fermentation, _____ is the final acceptor of the electrons stripped from glucose.
a.
oxygen
b.
pyruvate
c.
acetaldehyde
d.
sulfate
 

 16. 
Mitosis takes place in which region of the root?
a.
zone of maturation
b.
root cap
c.
zone of elongation
d.
apical meristem region
e.
region of differentiation
 

 17. 
Genetic disorders are caused by _____ .
a.
altered chromosome number
b.
altered chromosome structure
c.
mutation
d.
all of the above
 

 18. 
The pressure in the pleural cavities is always lower than atmospheric pressure.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 19. 
Bacteriophages are
a.
large bacteria.
b.
pathogens (disease-producing bacteria).
c.
viruses.
d.
cellular components.
e.
protistans.
 

 20. 
The _____, which bears flowers, roots, stems, and leaves, dominates the life cycle of flowering plants
a.
sporophyte
b.
gametophyte
 

 21. 
Duplicated chromosomes move away from their homologue and end up at the opposite spindle pole during _____ .
a.
prophase I
b.
prophase II
c.
anaphase I
d.
anaphase II
 

 22. 
Seeds are mature _____; fruits are mature _____ .
a.
ovaries; ovules
b.
ovules; stamens
c.
ovules; ovaries
d.
stamens; ovaries
 

 23. 
In the light-dependent reactions, _____ .
a.
carbon dioxide is fixed
b.
ATP and NADPH form
c.
CO2 accepts electrons
d.
sugar phosphates form
 

 24. 
Hydrophobic reactions of phospholipids may produce clusters of their fatty acid tails, which form
a.
a lipid bilayer.
b.
hydrolysis of the fatty acids.
c.
a protein membrane.
d.
a cytoskeleton.
e.
a nonpolar membrane.
 

 25. 
The lactose operon includes
a.
an operator.
b.
three structural genes that manufacture lactose-metabolizing enzymes.
c.
a promoter.
d.
a repressor.
e.
an operator, three structural genes that manufacture lactose-metabolizing enzymes, and a promoter.
 

 26. 
Transcription
a.
occurs on the surface of the ribosome.
b.
is the final process in the assembly of a protein.
c.
occurs during the synthesis of any type of RNA from a DNA template.
d.
is catalyzed by DNA polymerase.
e.
all of these
 

 27. 
Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?
a.
B cell
b.
T cell
c.
Natural killer cell
d.
Macrophage
 

 28. 
The first group to exhibit an amniotic egg belonged to the
a.
Aves.
b.
Amphibia.
c.
Reptilia.
d.
Osteichthyes.
e.
Mammalia.
 

 29. 
In phloem, organic compounds flow through _____ .
a.
collenchyma cells
b.
sieve tubes
c.
vessels
d.
tracheids
 

 30. 
Birds differ from earlier vertebrates by
a.
their lack of scales.
b.
the land egg.
c.
the ability to maintain a constant body temperature.
d.
the ability to fertilize eggs internally.
e.
their possession of a dorsal nerve cord.
 

 31. 
Mast cells and _____ release histamine.
a.
neutrophils
b.
basophils
c.
eosinophils
d.
dendritic cells
 

 32. 
Enzymes
a.
are very specific.
b.
act as catalysts.
c.
are organic molecules.
d.
have special shapes that control their activities.
e.
all of these
 

 33. 
Interneurons
a.
connect a motor neuron and sensory neuron.
b.
determine whether a particular motor neuron is excited or inhibited.
c.
become either sensory or motor neurons during development.
d.
are described in both a and b.
e.
are described by none of the above.
 

 34. 
Mushrooms are members of which of the following?
a.
sac fungi
b.
club fungi
c.
imperfect fungi
d.
water molds
e.
zygospore-forming fungi
 

 35. 
What is starch?
a.
A disaccharide made of glucose monomers.
b.
A polysaccharide formed by a series of condensation reactions.
c.
A storage polysaccharide found in animals
d.
The most abundant organic material on earth.
e.
None of the above.
 

 36. 
After a myosin head has performed a power stroke, it must first bind to _____ in order to perform another power stroke.
a.
actin
b.
troponin
c.
tropomyosin
d.
myosin
e.
ATP
 

 37. 
Sodium ions cross a membrane through transport proteins that receive an energy boost. This is an example of _____ .
a.
passive transport
b.
active transport
c.
facilitated diffusion
d.
a and c
 

 38. 
In the life cycle of primitive plants, which of the following predominates?
a.
haploid stage
b.
diploid stage
c.
large sporophyte body
d.
both diploid stage and large sporophyte body
e.
both haploid stage and large sporophyte body
 

 39. 
Water droplets form on the outside of a cold soda can because
a.
the can "sweats" water.
b.
static electricity attracts water to the can.
c.
sonic vibrations shake the water from the inside of the can to the outside.
d.
None of the above.
 

 40. 
Sensroy axons enter the spinal cord through
a.
the dorsal roots.
b.
the ventral roots.
c.
the pons.
d.
the sympathetic ganglia.
 

 41. 
Glycolysis
a.
occurs in the mitochondria.
b.
happens to glucose only.
c.
results in the production of pyruvate.
d.
occurs in the cytoplasm.
e.
results in the production of pyruvate and occurs in the cytoplasm.
 

 42. 
The nitrogenous base found in DNA but not in RNA is
a.
adenine.
b.
cytosine.
c.
guanine.
d.
uracil.
e.
thymine.
 

 43. 
Georges Cuvier was a strong proponent of the theory of
a.
uniformity.
b.
relativity.
c.
catastrophism.
d.
natural selection.
e.
acquired characteristics.
 

 44. 
The most successful forms of life that have ever evolved are the
a.
vertebrates.
b.
insects.
c.
humans.
d.
protozoans.
e.
mollusks
 

 45. 
A molecule that gives up an electron becomes
a.
ionized
b.
oxidized
c.
reduced
d.
both ionized and oxidized.
e.
both ionized and reduced.
 

 46. 
Where in a plant cell is chlorophyll found?
a.
on the outer chloroplast membrane
b.
inside the mitochondria
c.
in the stroma
d.
in the thylakoids
e.
none of these
 

 47. 
Only _____ have a notochord, a tubular dorsal nerve cord, a pharynx with slits in the walls, and a tail extending past the anus.
a.
echinoderms
b.
tunicates and lancelets
c.
vertebrates
d.
both b and c
e.
all of the above
 

 48. 
The chemical processes in the living cell are collectively called
a.
adaptation.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
evolution.
d.
respiration.
e.
metabolism.
 

 49. 
A locus is
a.
a recessive gene.
b.
an unmatched allele.
c.
a sex chromosome.
d.
the location of an allele on a chromosome.
e.
a dominant gene.
 

 50. 
Atoms share electrons unequally in a (an) ______ bond.
a.
ionic
b.
nonpolar covalent
c.
polar covalent
d.
hydrogen
 

 51. 
Various forms of a gene at a given locus are called
a.
chiasmata.
b.
alleles.
c.
autosomes.
d.
loci.
e.
chromatids.
 

 52. 
Amniocentesis involves sampling
a.
the fetus directly.
b.
the fetal cells floating in the amniotic fluid.
c.
sperm.
d.
blood cells.
e.
placental cells.
 

 53. 
The light-independent reactions proceed in the _____ .
a.
cytoplasm
b.
plasma membrane
c.
stroma
 

 54. 
The nutrition of some plants depends on a root-fungus association known as a _____ .
a.
root nodule
b.
mycorrhiza
c.
root hair
d.
root hypha
 

 55. 
Xylem and phloem are _____ tissues.
a.
ground
b.
vascular
c.
dermal
d.
both b and c
 

 56. 
For Mendel's explanation of inheritance to be correct,
a.
the genes for the traits he studied had to be located on the same chromosome.
b.
which gametes combine at fertilization had to be due to chance.
c.
genes could not be transmitted independently of each other.
d.
only diploid organisms would demonstrate inheritance patterns.
e.
none of these
 

 57. 
In Argentina, Darwin noted the similarity of fossils of glyptodonts to modern
a.
rodents.
b.
finches.
c.
turtles,
d.
armadillos.
e.
ostriches.
 

 58. 
Which of the following includes all the others?
a.
actin
b.
myofibril
c.
myosin
d.
myofilament
e.
muscle cell
 

 59. 
Reptiles moved fully onto land owing to _____ .
a.
tough skin
b.
internal fertilization
c.
good kidneys
d.
amniote eggs
e.
all of the above
 

 60. 
Hydrolysis is a (an) _____ reaction.
a.
functional group transfer
b.
electron transfer
c.
rearrangement
d.
condensation
e.
cleavage
 

 61. 
The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of
a.
introns.
b.
anticodons.
c.
exons.
d.
transcriptons.
e.
both exons and transcriptons but not introns or anticodons.
 

 62. 
Assuming complete dominance, the F2 generation following the cross Aa x Aa will show a phenotypic ratio of _____ .
a.
3:1
b.
9:1
c.
1:2:1
d.
9:3:3:1
 

 63. 
An operator most typically governs _____ .
a.
bacterial genes
b.
a eukaryotic gene
c.
genes of all types
d.
DNA replication
 

 64. 
Electron transport systems involve _____ .
a.
enzymes, coenzymes
b.
electron transfers
c.
cell membranes
d.
all of the above
 

 65. 
Each DNA strand has a backbone that consists of alternating
a.
purines and pyrimidines.
b.
nitrogen-containing bases.
c.
hydrogen bonds.
d.
sugar and phosphate molecules.
e.
amines and purines.
 

 66. 
Which of the following classes is represented only by fossil forms?
a.
Agnatha
b.
Amphibia
c.
Aves
d.
Placodermi
e.
Chondrichthyes
 

 67. 
Of all land plants, bryophytes alone have independent _____ and attached, dependent _____ .
a.
sporophytes; gametophytes
b.
gametophytes; sporophytes
c.
rhizoids; zygotes
d.
rhizoids; stalked sporangia
 

 68. 
A recognized set ot symptoms that characterize a specific disorder is a _____ .
a.
syndrome
b.
disease
c.
pedigree
 

 69. 
Each codon calls for a specific
a.
protein
b.
polypeptide
c.
amino acid
d.
carbohydrate
 

 70. 
The laboratory technique used to separate the DNA fragments produced by automated DNA sequencing is
a.
the polymerase chain reaction.
b.
gel electrophoresis.
c.
ultracentrifugation.
d.
electron microscopy.
e.
fluorescence microscopy.
 

 71. 
What are the base-pairing rules for DNA?
a.
A-G, T-C
b.
A-C, T-G
c.
A-U, C-G
d.
A-T, G-C
 

 72. 
Amniote eggs form during the life cycle of most _____ .
a.
reptiles
b.
birds
c.
mammals
d.
all of the above
 

 73. 
A seed leaf is which of the following?
a.
embryo
b.
coleoptile
c.
endosperm
d.
cotyledon
e.
suspensor
 

 74. 
In the bonding of nitrogenous bases
a.
adenine is paired with cytosine.
b.
adenine is paired with guanine.
c.
cytosine is paired with thymine.
d.
guanine is paired with cytosine.
 

 75. 
The introduction of a small population onto an island that results in a limited gene pool for a population best describes
a.
the Hardy-Weinberg law.
b.
genetic drift.
c.
the bottleneck effect.
d.
the founder principle.
e.
the effect of genetic isolation.
 

 76. 
Chromosome structure can be altered by a _____ .
a.
deletion
b.
duplication
c.
inversion
d.
translocation
e.
all of the above
 

 77. 
From X-ray diffraction data, which of the following was determined about DNA?
a.
The molecule had uniform diameter.
b.
The molecule was long and narrow.
c.
Part of the molecule repeated itself often.
d.
The shape of the molecule could be spiral.
e.
all of these
 

 78. 
The human axial skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT
a.
skull.
b.
ribs.
c.
pectoral girdle.
d.
sternum.
e.
vertebral column.
 

 79. 
PCR stands for
a.
polymerase chain reaction
b.
polyploid chromosome restrictions
c.
polygraphed criminal rating
d.
politically correct research
 

 80. 
Which phylum contains members that are notorious for causing serious diseaases in humans?
a.
cnidarians
b.
flatworms
c.
segmented worms
d.
chordates
 

 81. 
The probability of a crossover occurring between two genes on the same chromosome is _____ .
a.
unrelated to the distance between them
b.
increased if they are closer together on the chromosome
c.
increased if they are farther apart on the chromosome
 

 82. 
The DNA fragments produced by automated DNA sequencing are identified using
a.
radioactive probes.
b.
laser beams.
c.
ultracentrifugation.
d.
electron microscopy.
e.
restriction enzymes.
 

 83. 
Does the loop of Henle concentrate urine?
a.
Yes
b.
No
 

 84. 
Identify which of the following substances accumulates inside the thylakoid compartment of chloroplasts druing the light-dependent reactions:
a.
glucose
b.
carotenoids
c.
chlorophyll
d.
fatty acids
e.
hydrogen ions
 

 85. 
ATP is
a.
the energy currency of a cell.
b.
produced by the destruction of ADP.
c.
expended in the process of photosynthesis.
d.
produced during the phosphorylation of any organic compound.
e.
none of these
 

 86. 
These contain enzymes used in the breakdown of glucose and generation of ATP.
a.
Golgi bodies
b.
ribosomes
c.
mitochondria
d.
lysosomes
e.
endoplasmic reticula
 

 87. 
The source region in the pressure flow explanation of phloem transport is most often the
a.
root.
b.
flower.
c.
stem.
d.
leaf.
e.
soil.
 

 88. 
Which of the following adult tissues or organs arises from the mesoderm?
a.
Sense organs
b.
Nervous system
c.
Circulatory system
d.
Respiratory tract
e.
Digestive tract
 

 89. 
The carbon dioxide acceptor in the Calvin-Benson cycle is
a.
phosphoglycerate (PGA).
b.
ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
c.
phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL).
d.
glucose.
e.
oxaloacetate.
 

 90. 
Stabilizing selection occurs when
a.
the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b.
humans determine which organisms will survive.
c.
the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d.
the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e.
the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
 



 
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