Name: 
 

BIS10V / NEM10V - Final Exam - Spring 2011



Instructions:

Put your name and student ID number on both the test and the scantron.

On your scantron, bubble in your student ID number. Bubble in the test version.

Only use pencil (spare ones up front). Erase stray  marks fully. No stray marks in the row of black lines.

On your scantron, identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

If you think there is an error on the test, make a note on your test (not the scantron) and tell the instructor on the way out.

Double check your scantron for "double bubbles" or missing answers. There is no penalty for guessing.
 

 1. 

The most successful forms of life that have ever evolved are the
a.
vertebrates.
b.
insects.
c.
humans.
d.
protozoans.
e.
mollusks
 

 2. 

The light-independent reactions proceed in the _____ .
a.
cytoplasm
b.
plasma membrane
c.
stroma
 

 3. 

The probability of a crossover occurring between two genes on the same chromosome is _____ .
a.
unrelated to the distance between them
b.
increased if they are closer together on the chromosome
c.
increased if they are farther apart on the chromosome
 

 4. 

Mitosis takes place in which region of the root?
a.
zone of maturation
b.
root cap
c.
zone of elongation
d.
apical meristem region
e.
region of differentiation
 

 5. 

Only _____ have a notochord, a tubular dorsal nerve cord, a pharynx with slits in the walls, and a tail extending past the anus.
a.
echinoderms
b.
tunicates and lancelets
c.
vertebrates
d.
both b and c
e.
all of the above
 

 6. 

The carbon source for organisms that derive their energy from photosynthesis is
a.
carbon monoxide.
b.
carbon dioxide.
c.
hydrocarbons.
d.
methane.
e.
glucose.
 

 7. 

Directional selection occurs when
a.
the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b.
humans determine which organisms will survive.
c.
the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d.
the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e.
the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than do those on the other extreme.
 

 8. 

From X-ray diffraction data, which of the following was determined about DNA?
a.
The molecule had uniform diameter.
b.
The molecule was long and narrow.
c.
Part of the molecule repeated itself often.
d.
The shape of the molecule could be spiral.
e.
all of these
 

 9. 

A seed leaf is which of the following?
a.
embryo
b.
coleoptile
c.
endosperm
d.
cotyledon
e.
suspensor
 

 10. 

Birds differ from earlier vertebrates by
a.
their lack of scales.
b.
the land egg.
c.
the ability to maintain a constant body temperature.
d.
the ability to fertilize eggs internally.
e.
their possession of a dorsal nerve cord.
 

 11. 

The chemical processes in the living cell are collectively called
a.
adaptation.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
evolution.
d.
respiration.
e.
metabolism.
 

 12. 

In the bonding of nitrogenous bases
a.
adenine is paired with cytosine.
b.
adenine is paired with guanine.
c.
cytosine is paired with thymine.
d.
guanine is paired with cytosine.
 

 13. 

Transcription
a.
occurs on the surface of the ribosome.
b.
is the final process in the assembly of a protein.
c.
occurs during the synthesis of any type of RNA from a DNA template.
d.
is catalyzed by DNA polymerase.
e.
all of these
 

 14. 

Which of the following is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton?
a.
clavicle
b.
scapula
c.
fibula
d.
ribs
e.
patella
 

 15. 

The nutrition of some plants depends on a root-fungus association known as a _____ .
a.
root nodule
b.
mycorrhiza
c.
root hair
d.
root hypha
 

 16. 

Does the loop of Henle concentrate urine?
a.
Yes
b.
No
 

 17. 

What are the base-pairing rules for DNA?
a.
A-G, T-C
b.
A-C, T-G
c.
A-U, C-G
d.
A-T, G-C
 

 18. 

Water droplets form on the outside of a cold soda can because
a.
the can "sweats" water.
b.
static electricity attracts water to the can.
c.
sonic vibrations shake the water from the inside of the can to the outside.
d.
None of the above.
 

 19. 

After a myosin head has performed a power stroke, it must first bind to _____ in order to perform another power stroke.
a.
actin
b.
troponin
c.
tropomyosin
d.
myosin
e.
ATP
 

 20. 

Atoms share electrons unequally in a (an) ______ bond.
a.
ionic
b.
nonpolar covalent
c.
polar covalent
d.
hydrogen
 

 21. 

Alleles are _____ .
a.
different molecular forms of a gene
b.
different phenotypes
c.
self-fertilizing, true-breeding homozygotes
 

 22. 

PCR stands for
a.
polymerase chain reaction
b.
polyploid chromosome restrictions
c.
polygraphed criminal rating
d.
politically correct research
 

 23. 

Duplicated chromosomes move away from their homologue and end up at the opposite spindle pole during _____ .
a.
prophase I
b.
prophase II
c.
anaphase I
d.
anaphase II
 

 24. 

The sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome is
a.
XXX.
b.
XO.
c.
XXY.
d.
XYY.
e.
none of these
 

 25. 

Whisk ferns, lycophytes, horsetails, and ferns are classified as _____ plants.
a.
multicelled aquatic
b.
nonvascular seed
c.
seedless vascular
d.
seed-bearing vascular
 

 26. 

In Argentina, Darwin noted the similarity of fossils of glyptodonts to modern
a.
rodents.
b.
finches.
c.
turtles,
d.
armadillos.
e.
ostriches.
 

 27. 

Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?
a.
B cell
b.
T cell
c.
Natural killer cell
d.
Macrophage
 

 28. 

Where in a plant cell is chlorophyll found?
a.
on the outer chloroplast membrane
b.
inside the mitochondria
c.
in the stroma
d.
in the thylakoids
e.
none of these
 

 29. 

Xylem and phloem are _____ tissues.
a.
ground
b.
vascular
c.
dermal
d.
both b and c
 

 30. 

Enzymes
a.
are very specific.
b.
act as catalysts.
c.
are organic molecules.
d.
have special shapes that control their activities.
e.
all of these
 

 31. 

These contain enzymes used in the breakdown of glucose and generation of ATP.
a.
Golgi bodies
b.
ribosomes
c.
mitochondria
d.
lysosomes
e.
endoplasmic reticula
 

 32. 

Bacteriophages are
a.
large bacteria.
b.
pathogens (disease-producing bacteria).
c.
viruses.
d.
cellular components.
e.
protistans.
 

 33. 

Hydrophobic reactions of phospholipids may produce clusters of their fatty acid tails, which form
a.
a lipid bilayer.
b.
hydrolysis of the fatty acids.
c.
a protein membrane.
d.
a cytoskeleton.
e.
a nonpolar membrane.
 

 34. 

Hydrolysis is a (an) _____ reaction.
a.
functional group transfer
b.
electron transfer
c.
rearrangement
d.
condensation
e.
cleavage
 

 35. 

Each codon calls for a specific
a.
protein
b.
polypeptide
c.
amino acid
d.
carbohydrate
 

 36. 

Hemophilia
a.
is rare in the human population.
b.
is more common among men.
c.
was common in English royalty.
d.
is an X-linked recessive trait.
e.
all of these
 

 37. 

Amniote eggs form during the life cycle of most _____ .
a.
reptiles
b.
birds
c.
mammals
d.
all of the above
 

 38. 

Amniocentesis involves sampling
a.
the fetus directly.
b.
the fetal cells floating in the amniotic fluid.
c.
sperm.
d.
blood cells.
e.
placental cells.
 

 39. 

The nitrogenous base found in DNA but not in RNA is
a.
adenine.
b.
cytosine.
c.
guanine.
d.
uracil.
e.
thymine.
 

 40. 

The Krebs cycle takes place in the
a.
ribosomes.
b.
cytoplasm.
c.
nucleus.
d.
mitochondria.
e.
chloroplasts.
 

 41. 

An operator most typically governs _____ .
a.
bacterial genes
b.
a eukaryotic gene
c.
genes of all types
d.
DNA replication
 

 42. 

In the light-dependent reactions, _____ .
a.
carbon dioxide is fixed
b.
ATP and NADPH form
c.
CO2 accepts electrons
d.
sugar phosphates form
 

 43. 

The lactose operon includes
a.
an operator.
b.
three structural genes that manufacture lactose-metabolizing enzymes.
c.
a promoter.
d.
a repressor.
e.
an operator, three structural genes that manufacture lactose-metabolizing enzymes, and a promoter.
 

 44. 

The pressure in the pleural cavities is always lower than atmospheric pressure.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 45. 

A molecule that gives up an electron becomes
a.
ionized
b.
oxidized
c.
reduced
d.
both ionized and oxidized.
e.
both ionized and reduced.
 

 46. 

Which of the following classes is represented only by fossil forms?
a.
Agnatha
b.
Amphibia
c.
Aves
d.
Placodermi
e.
Chondrichthyes
 

 47. 

The plant hormone that promotes fruit ripening is
a.
auxin.
b.
gibberellin.
c.
cytokinin.
d.
florigen.
e.
ethylene.
 

 48. 

The first group to exhibit an amniotic egg belonged to the
a.
Aves.
b.
Amphibia.
c.
Reptilia.
d.
Osteichthyes.
e.
Mammalia.
 

 49. 

Sodium ions cross a membrane through transport proteins that receive an energy boost. This is an example of _____ .
a.
passive transport
b.
active transport
c.
facilitated diffusion
d.
a and c
 

 50. 

Glycolysis
a.
occurs in the mitochondria.
b.
happens to glucose only.
c.
results in the production of pyruvate.
d.
occurs in the cytoplasm.
e.
results in the production of pyruvate and occurs in the cytoplasm.
 

 51. 

Genetic disorders are caused by _____ .
a.
altered chromosome number
b.
altered chromosome structure
c.
mutation
d.
all of the above
 

 52. 

The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of
a.
introns.
b.
anticodons.
c.
exons.
d.
transcriptons.
e.
both exons and transcriptons but not introns or anticodons.
 

 53. 

In alcoholic fermentation, _____ is the final acceptor of the electrons stripped from glucose.
a.
oxygen
b.
pyruvate
c.
acetaldehyde
d.
sulfate
 

 54. 

In the life cycle of primitive plants, which of the following predominates?
a.
haploid stage
b.
diploid stage
c.
large sporophyte body
d.
both diploid stage and large sporophyte body
e.
both haploid stage and large sporophyte body
 

 55. 

Sensroy axons enter the spinal cord through
a.
the dorsal roots.
b.
the ventral roots.
c.
the pons.
d.
the sympathetic ganglia.
 

 56. 

A recognized set ot symptoms that characterize a specific disorder is a _____ .
a.
syndrome
b.
disease
c.
pedigree
 

 57. 

Interneurons
a.
connect a motor neuron and sensory neuron.
b.
determine whether a particular motor neuron is excited or inhibited.
c.
become either sensory or motor neurons during development.
d.
are described in both a and b.
e.
are described by none of the above.
 

 58. 

Which of the following adult tissues or organs arises from the mesoderm?
a.
Sense organs
b.
Nervous system
c.
Circulatory system
d.
Respiratory tract
e.
Digestive tract
 

 59. 

Stabilizing selection occurs when
a.
the environment controls which organisms will survive.
b.
humans determine which organisms will survive.
c.
the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
d.
the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
e.
the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
 

 60. 

Mast cells and _____ release histamine.
a.
neutrophils
b.
basophils
c.
eosinophils
d.
dendritic cells
 

 61. 

Which type of cytoskeletal protein is responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
a.
Intermediate filaments
b.
Microfilaments
c.
Microtubules
 

 62. 

Mushrooms are members of which of the following?
a.
sac fungi
b.
club fungi
c.
imperfect fungi
d.
water molds
e.
zygospore-forming fungi
 

 63. 

How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
36
e.
38
 

 64. 

The human axial skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT
a.
skull.
b.
ribs.
c.
pectoral girdle.
d.
sternum.
e.
vertebral column.
 

 65. 

The laboratory technique used to separate the DNA fragments produced by automated DNA sequencing is
a.
the polymerase chain reaction.
b.
gel electrophoresis.
c.
ultracentrifugation.
d.
electron microscopy.
e.
fluorescence microscopy.
 

 66. 

The _____, which bears flowers, roots, stems, and leaves, dominates the life cycle of flowering plants
a.
sporophyte
b.
gametophyte
 

 67. 

Chromosome structure can be altered by a _____ .
a.
deletion
b.
duplication
c.
inversion
d.
translocation
e.
all of the above
 

 68. 

Various forms of a gene at a given locus are called
a.
chiasmata.
b.
alleles.
c.
autosomes.
d.
loci.
e.
chromatids.
 

 69. 

What is starch?
a.
A disaccharide made of glucose monomers.
b.
A polysaccharide formed by a series of condensation reactions.
c.
A storage polysaccharide found in animals
d.
The most abundant organic material on earth.
e.
None of the above.
 

 70. 

The carbon dioxide acceptor in the Calvin-Benson cycle is
a.
phosphoglycerate (PGA).
b.
ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
c.
phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL).
d.
glucose.
e.
oxaloacetate.
 

 71. 

In phloem, organic compounds flow through _____ .
a.
collenchyma cells
b.
sieve tubes
c.
vessels
d.
tracheids
 

 72. 

Reptiles moved fully onto land owing to _____ .
a.
tough skin
b.
internal fertilization
c.
good kidneys
d.
amniote eggs
e.
all of the above
 

 73. 

The source region in the pressure flow explanation of phloem transport is most often the
a.
root.
b.
flower.
c.
stem.
d.
leaf.
e.
soil.
 

 74. 

Which phylum contains members that are notorious for causing serious diseaases in humans?
a.
cnidarians
b.
flatworms
c.
segmented worms
d.
chordates
 

 75. 

The DNA fragments produced by automated DNA sequencing are identified using
a.
radioactive probes.
b.
laser beams.
c.
ultracentrifugation.
d.
electron microscopy.
e.
restriction enzymes.
 

 76. 

For Mendel's explanation of inheritance to be correct,
a.
the genes for the traits he studied had to be located on the same chromosome.
b.
which gametes combine at fertilization had to be due to chance.
c.
genes could not be transmitted independently of each other.
d.
only diploid organisms would demonstrate inheritance patterns.
e.
none of these
 

 77. 

Two individuals are members of the same species if they
a.
possess the same number of chromosomes.
b.
breed at the same time.
c.
are phenotypically indistinguishable.
d.
can mate and produce fertile offspring.
 

 78. 

Of all land plants, bryophytes alone have independent _____ and attached, dependent _____ .
a.
sporophytes; gametophytes
b.
gametophytes; sporophytes
c.
rhizoids; zygotes
d.
rhizoids; stalked sporangia
 

 79. 

Each DNA strand has a backbone that consists of alternating
a.
purines and pyrimidines.
b.
nitrogen-containing bases.
c.
hydrogen bonds.
d.
sugar and phosphate molecules.
e.
amines and purines.
 

 80. 

Assuming complete dominance, the F2 generation following the cross Aa x Aa will show a phenotypic ratio of _____ .
a.
3:1
b.
9:1
c.
1:2:1
d.
9:3:3:1
 

 81. 

Water transport from roots to leaves is explained by _____ .
a.
the pressure flow theory
b.
differences in source and sink solute concentrations
c.
the pumping force of xylem vessels
d.
the cohesion-tension theory
 

 82. 

ATP is
a.
the energy currency of a cell.
b.
produced by the destruction of ADP.
c.
expended in the process of photosynthesis.
d.
produced during the phosphorylation of any organic compound.
e.
none of these
 

 83. 

A locus is
a.
a recessive gene.
b.
an unmatched allele.
c.
a sex chromosome.
d.
the location of an allele on a chromosome.
e.
a dominant gene.
 

 84. 

Electron transport systems involve _____ .
a.
enzymes, coenzymes
b.
electron transfers
c.
cell membranes
d.
all of the above
 

 85. 

Which of the following includes all the others?
a.
actin
b.
myofibril
c.
myosin
d.
myofilament
e.
muscle cell
 

 86. 

Seeds are mature _____; fruits are mature _____ .
a.
ovaries; ovules
b.
ovules; stamens
c.
ovules; ovaries
d.
stamens; ovaries
 

 87. 

The introduction of a small population onto an island that results in a limited gene pool for a population best describes
a.
the Hardy-Weinberg law.
b.
genetic drift.
c.
the bottleneck effect.
d.
the founder principle.
e.
the effect of genetic isolation.
 

 88. 

Identify which of the following substances accumulates inside the thylakoid compartment of chloroplasts druing the light-dependent reactions:
a.
glucose
b.
carotenoids
c.
chlorophyll
d.
fatty acids
e.
hydrogen ions
 

 89. 

Georges Cuvier was a strong proponent of the theory of
a.
uniformity.
b.
relativity.
c.
catastrophism.
d.
natural selection.
e.
acquired characteristics.
 

 90. 

In spongy bone tissue the spaces are filled with
a.
air.
b.
blood.
c.
cartilage.
d.
marrow.
e.
lymph.
 



 
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